Sorry, I don’t know much about Assange but how can it be probable he raped someone “under Swedish law”? Do you just mean Sweden has different definitions for rape and that he might have done something fitting one of those definitions (but we cannot be sure of it because of lack of evidence)? Or something else I’m missing?
Sorry, I don’t know much about Assange but how can it be probable he raped someone “under Swedish law”? Do you just mean Sweden has different definitions for rape and that he might have done something fitting one of those definitions (but we cannot be sure of it because of lack of evidence)? Or something else I’m missing?
There are claims and counterclaims. Both sides sound convincing, but that’s what prosecutors and defense attorneys are supposed to do.